Wd (in WACC formula)

In viewing a recent valuation report, I noticed that the consultant didn't use the actual debt on the balance sheet in the WACC calculation. The percentage debt used was 33.3%, which appears to have been derived from an "ideal" debt to equity ratio of 1:2, although differentiation was not expressed anywhere in the report.

Was this an error, or is this a common practice among valuation consultants?
Thanks!